Common Questions about the Baptism in the Holy Spirit.

Common Questions about the Holy Spirit.

from Barry Chant, Empowered by the Spirit, p. 227-249.

Since the Charismatic Renewal in the 1970’s there have been persistent questions and debates about the Baptism in the Holy Spirit. Many Christians saw Pentecostalism as at best, emotionalism, and at worst, fanaticism or even demon possession.

If you do not see this work as being of God then you must find some other explanation. Here are some of the most important common objections raised.

1. “Speaking in Tongues is the result of Demon Possession”.

Glossalalia is not a Phenomenon confined to Christianity. It is also known in Greek mystery religions and Shamanistic cults. There it may be the result of Demonic activity.

This no more invalidates the  genuine tongues-speaking than the existence of counterfeit money invalidates genuine currency. It does however  reinforce our need for discernment and vigilance.

This is rare but is usually accompanied by bitterness, hatred and anger.

Never in the Letter to the Corinthians does Paul say that Tongues were spurious or Satanic. The gifts were genuine but the Usage needed to be regulated by teaching.

Second, Jesus promised that those who asked the Father for the Holy Spirit would get only the Holy Spirit.

Thirdly, the pentecostal/charismatic renewal has always been associated with love for Jesus, joy, spiritual fervour, deliverance from sin and addiction,renewed discipleship, missionary endeavour, evangelism, fervent prayer and a spirit of revival. p.228

2.  “Each of the Occurrences of Tongues in the Book of Acts was to mark the Inauguration of the Kingdom in different ethnic situations.”

The prolific writer Geoffrey Bingham says: “ I have always thought it a pity that in looking at the nature of Christ’s Baptising people in/with the Holy Spirit very few scholars have seen this baptism of the Spirit and of fire as having to do with the Kingdom of God.”p.231 

Jerusalem, Caesarea, and Samaria, are three initial principal outpourings never to be repeated since they commence the Spirit donation a) to the Jews, b) to the Samaritans and c) to the Gentiles…..Once the Spirit has been given to each ethnic group He was there for all generations until the Day of the Lord.’ G.B.  Others have gone future and said that once there was those initial outpourings and each ethnic group had their own ‘Pentecost’, there would never be futre outpourings.

Barry Chants suggests that this does not fit the Historical facts nor the needs of the World. There are at least three more Pentecosts in Scripture.:

Paul in Acts 9:17;the Corinthians in Acts 18:1-11; and the Ephesians in Acts 19:1-6. Paul was a Jew as we possibly those men in Ephesus. Why would they need to receive if the Outpouring to the Jews at Jerusalem at Pentecost was Sufficient? lf the Outpouring with speaking in Tongues to the gentiles at Caesarea was sufficient then why the outpouring to the Corinthians?

Would this not have needed to be repeated to all other ethnic groups like the Bantou, the Nilotic and the Bulgars, etc .

The safer answer is to follow what the Scripture says clearly in Joel 2:28  And it shall come to pass afterward, that I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions: Joe 2:29  and also upon the servants and upon the handmaids in those days will I pour out my spirit.

3. “Glossalalia was a sign to the Jews and is not needed now”

Act 28:28  Be it known therefore unto you, that this salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles: they will also hear”.

“ After Paul had spoken this verse and the Gospel had been sent to the gentiles then there was no longer need for Speaking in Tongues.” say some writers. ‘The sign is only for the Jews’ says others. After AD 70 Glossalalia was no longer needed.

They quote “1Co 14:21  In the law it is written, By men of strange tongues and by the lips of strangers will I speak unto this people; and not even thus will they hear me, saith the Lord.

1Co 14:22  Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to the unbelieving: but prophesying is for a sign, not to the unbelieving, but to them that believe.”

If this is true how do we account for the widespread  phenomena of glossalalia today? If it is of God then He does not see it as a sign only to the Jews. If it is not of God then there must be some other explanation. Baxter seems to see it as self-hypnosis.

Whatever alternative explanation is given it must not only allow for the widespread incidence of speaking in Tongues, but also the widespread spiritual revival that has accompanied these outpourings. Can revival be explained by self-hypnosis?

4. “ Glossalalia was only for the Apostolic age.”

This argument is usually based on

1Co 13:8  Love never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall be done away; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall be done away.

1Co 13:9  For we know in part, and we prophesy in part:

1Co 13:10  but when that which is perfect is come, that which is in part shall be done away.

1Co 13:11  When I was a child, I spake as a child, I felt as a child, I thought as a child: now that I am become a man, I have put away childish things.

1Co 13:12  For now we see in a mirror, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I have been known.

1Co 13:13  But now abideth faith, hope, love, these three; and the greatest of these is love.

It is sometimes claimed the “perfect” applies to the canon of Scripture, and that once the Canon was completed there is no further need for prophecy, speaking in tongues, or words of knowledge. so Baxter writes, “ once the last verse of the Book of the revelation were written all prophecies and words of knowledge passed away.” R. Baxter 1981 The Charismatic Gift of Tongues.p.63

Firstly, the logic of this argument is seriously flawed. When the last word of the new testament was written it was not generally available to all people. It was a further 200 years before there was general agreement about those books which should be included in the New Testament canon. For individuals to have a copy took until the invention of the printing press in the 15th Century.

Secondly referring to 1 COR 13: 10 J. Gill says , “But when that which is perfect is come,.... When perfect knowledge of God, of Christ, and of the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven shall take place; which will not in this life, but in that which is to come. So the Jews say (r) that at the resurrection, upon the reunion of the soul and body,

"the children of men shall attain to דעה שלימה, "perfect knowledge";''

which is what the apostle refers to here:

and then that which is in part, shall be done away: the imperfection of knowledge shall be removed; the imperfect manner of communicating knowledge, and of receiving and acquiring it, will cease: thus the apostle explains what he means by the cessation and failing of knowledge, and prophecy; not that knowledge itself will be no more, and a state of ignorance and darkness succeed; but imperfect knowledge will vanish away, or rather will be perfected, or be swallowed up in perfect knowledge; the imperfection of it will disappear; and it will be no more taught and received in part; the whole of truth will be clearly known.

Paul Himself says, “1Co 14:18  I thank God, I speak with tongues more than you all:

1Co 14:19  howbeit in the church I had rather speak five words with my understanding, that I might instruct others also, than ten thousand words in a tongue.

Paul said this:

Thirdly, in 1Co 12:28  And God hath set some in the church, first apostles, secondly prophets, thirdly teachers, then miracles, then gifts of healings, helps, governments, divers kinds of tongues. “ The New testament never says God has removed the 1 Cor 12:28 gifts from His church; clearly God has placed these gifts in the church.

5. “Baptism in the Spirit occurs at Conversion”.

The Book of Acts clearly shows that the Baptism does not necessarily occur at conversion With Spirit were contemporaneous. Elsewhere Luke uses the term in regard to an impartation distinct from Conversion.

see Acts 8:1-17;  Acts 9:17; Acts 19: 1-6

People can be baptised in the Spirit at Conversion but is generally does not happen then.

6. “baptism in the Spirit occurs at Baptism”.

Some argue that Baptism in the Spirit occurs at Baptism in water simultaneously.

In Act 19:2  and he said unto them, Did ye receive the Holy Ghost when ye believed? And they said unto him, Nay, we did not so much as hear whether the Holy Ghost was given.

Act 19:3  And he said, Into what then were ye baptized? And they said, Into John's baptism.

They say this is the evidence that the two are simultaneous

In the New testament it is clear that Baptism in the Spirit and Baptism in water are separate experiences.

7. In John 20:20-22 this shows that the disciples received the Spirit without tongues.

This is a difficult Scripture. see .A. Clark ‘He breathed on them - Intimating, by this, that they were to be made new men, in order to be properly qualified for the work to which he had called them; for in this breathing he evidently alluded to the first creation of man, when God breathed into him the breath of lives, and he became a living soul: the breath or Spirit of God (רוח אלהים  ruach Elohim) being the grand principle and cause of his spiritual and Divine life.

Receive ye the Holy Ghost - From this act of our Lord, the influences of the Holy Spirit on the souls of men have been termed his inspiration; from in, into, and spiro, I breathe. Every word of Christ which is received in the heart by faith comes accompanied by this Divine breathing; and, without this, there is neither light nor life. Just as Adam was before God breathed the quickening spirit into him, so is every human soul till it receives this inspiration. Nothing is seen, known, discerned, or felt of God, but through this.